In this section, we will investigate how we can use known power series, and calculus operations on these series, to represent functions.
We motivate this section by beginning with a celebration of the utility of geometric series.
Consider the power series given by
$$
\sum_{n=0}^{\infty} x^n = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3 \cdots.
$$
Recall that this series is geometric, and therefore has radius of convergence $R = 1$ and interval of convergence $\vert x\vert < 1$. Since it is a geometric series, we can immediately write down its sum on this interval.
$$
\sum_{n=0}^\infty x^n = \frac{1}{1-x}.
$$
These two functions do indeed coincide, but only on their shared domain. Despite the fact that the domain of the function $f(x) = \tfrac{1}{1-x}$ is $(-\infty,1)\cup(1,\infty)$, it is only equal to this power series representation on the interval of convergence, $(-1,1)$.
It is not a surprise that the point $x=1$ is an obstruction, but we might wonder why the common domain only extends to $x=-1$ in the other direction. We discussed this idea briefly in Section 11.8, but let's take another look at it now.
Consider the first five partial sums of the power series.
$$
\begin{align}{}
S_0(x) & = 1 \\
S_1(x) & = 1 + x \\
S_2(x) & = 1 + x + x^2 \\
S_3(x) & = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3 \\
S_4(x) & = 1 + x + x^2 + x^3 + x^4
\end{align}
$$
Let's plot these together with the function $f(x) = \tfrac{1}{1-x}$ on the same set of axes. Each $S_k$, as $k$ increases, should be a better approximation of the graph of $f$, centered at $x_0 = 0$.
Recall that the domain, or interval of convergence, of a power series is always a symmetric interval about the center point. The graph above helps illustrate why this must be the case.
Express the function
$$
f(x) = \dfrac{1}{1+x^2}
$$
as the sum of a power series and find the interval of convergence.
Find a power series representation of the function.
$$
f(x) = \dfrac{4}{2x + 3}
$$
What is its interval of convergence?
Since convergent power series are defined by limits of polynomial functions, it should not be too much of a surprise that we can perform our favorite calculus operations on them.
Consider a power series
$$
f(x) = \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty} c_n (x-x_0)^n
$$
with radius of convergence $R>0$. Then $f$ is differentiable on the interval $(x_0-R, x_0+R)$ and
$$
f'(x) = c_1 + 2c_2(x-x_0) + 3c_3(x-x_0)^2 + \cdots = \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} n c_n (x-x_0)^{n-1} = \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty} (n+1)c_{n+1} (x-x_0)^{n}. \tag{1}
$$
Moreover, since $f$ is differentiable on $I = \vert x - x_0\vert < R$, then it is also continuous on that interval. Therefore $f$ is integrable on $I$, and
$$
\displaystyle\int f(x) \, dx = C + c_0(x-x_0) + c_1\dfrac{(x-x_0)^2}{2} + c_2\dfrac{(x-x_0)^3}{3} + \cdots = C + \sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty}\dfrac{c_n}{n+1}\,(x-x_0)^{n+1}, \tag{2}
$$
where $C$ is an unknown constant.
The radii of convergence of the power series in equations $(1)$ and $(2)$ both remain $R$. (Implicit exercise: show it!)
Note that to keep the index of equation $(1)$ starting at $n=0$, we had to shift the terms inside of the $\Sigma$. The two equations in the the thereom above can be written more succinctly as follows.
$$
\begin{array}{}
\displaystyle\dfrac{d}{dx} \left[ \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} c_n (x-x_0)^n\right] & = \displaystyle\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty} \dfrac{d}{dx} \left[c_n (x-x_0)^{n}\right], \quad \text{and} \\[2ex]
\displaystyle\int \left[ \sum\limits_{n=1}^{\infty} c_n (x-x_0)^n\right]dx & = C + \displaystyle\sum\limits_{n=0}^{\infty} \left[ \displaystyle\int c_n (x-a)^{n} \, dx \right]
\end{array}
$$
Find a power series representation for the function and find its radius of convergence.
$$
f(x) = \ln\big(5-x\big)
$$
Find a power series representation for the function. What is its radius of convergence?
$$
f(x) = \frac{x^2}{(1+x)^3}
$$
Once we understand power series representations of functions, we can use power series to reframe and reimagine old problems from calculus.
Evaluate the integral as a power series.
$$
\int \frac{\arctan x}{x}\,dx
$$
What is the radius of convergence of the solution?
Show that the power series
$$
f(x) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n\,x^{2n}}{(2n)!}
$$
is a solution to the differential equation $y'' + y = 0$. Based on your knowledge of calculus, can you guess what function this this power series represents?
We end these notes by investigating a series representation of $\pi$.
Use the power series for $\arctan x$ to show that
$$
\pi = 2\sqrt{3}\,\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{(2n+1)\, 3^n}.
$$
Questions? You can ask them here.
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